Software Development Processes and Methodologies Coursera Quiz Answers 2022 | All Weeks Assessment Answers [💯Correct Answer]

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About Software Development Processes and Methodologies Course

As automation and technology improve, software is quickly becoming an important part of everyday life. Just like we expect our cars to work all the time and can’t afford for them to break down or restart on their own, the software industry needs to keep learning better ways to make software if it wants to become an important part of people’s lives.

In this course, you’ll learn how software teams work in general. What steps do they take? What are some of the standard methods used in the business world? What’s good and bad about each? You will know enough about software development processes to have a good conversation about them.

After finishing this course, a learner will be able to 1) Use core software engineering practices to solve a given problem at a conceptual level.
2) At a high level, compare and contrast the traditional, agile, and lean ways of making software. These include Waterfall, Rational Unified Process, V model, Incremental, and Spiral models, as well as an overview of the agile mindset.
3) Suggest the best way to handle a certain situation.

Course Apply Link – Software Development Processes and Methodologies

Software Development Processes and Methodologies Quiz Answers

Week 1 Quiz answers

Quiz 1: What software development looks like

Q1. Which of the following software development models can best respond to requirements changes?

  • The V-model
  • The Waterfall model
  • Agile models

Q2. In which of the following software development models are the software development activities performed sequentially rather than in iterations?

  • Agile models
  • The Waterfall model

Q3. Which of the following are limitations of the waterfall model? Select three.

  • Integration issues may remain undetected until the last phase.
  • It is not suitable for big projects.
  • It is difficult to respond to requirements changes.
  • Misinterpretations of requirements or design can remain undetected until the later development phases.

Quiz 2: Why do we need requirements?

Q1. Which is the right description about the requirement specification process?

  • Requirement specification is a process that identifies and specifies the problem and possible solutions to the problem.
  • Requirement specification is a process to identify and specify the problem to solve.
  • Requirement specification is a process of solving the requirements.
  • Requirement specification is a process to design the solution to the problem.

Q2. Specifying requirements is difficult because (select three):

  • Software is intangible, which makes it difficult to comprehend and communicate.
  • The client or end users might not be clear about what they want.
  • Terminology can be interpreted in multiple ways depending on the person or the context in which it was used.
  • There is no guideline for writing a software requirement specification document.

Q3. Why is requirement specification important? Select two.

  • Changing the requirement is not possible once the system is fully developed.
  • Repairing a bug in the requirements can cost thousands of times less than in the later phases of the software development lifecycle.
  • Spending time upfront in requirement specification can save time in the later phases of the software development lifecycle.

Quiz 3: Requirements vs Specification

Q1. Which of the following are true about requirements and specifications? (Choose all that apply)

  • Requirements shall be written in the user’s language; system specifications shall be written in the system language.
  • Specifications shall meet the requirements.
  • Requirements are for users; specifications are for developers.
  • Requirements call for specification-level refinement.

Q2. The following are the requirements and specifications of an online banking service. Which of the following can be categorized as (user) requirements? Select two.

  • The user shall be able to check the current balance of the checking accounts that he/she own.
  • At the time a query is made to check the current balance of a checking account, the owner of the checking account shall be logged in.
  • Activate a login session when a user logs in, and maintain the session for 60 minutes unless the user who logged in had remained inactive for more than 120 seconds.
  • A user shall be able to use the online banking system securely.

Q3. The following are requirements and specifications of an online banking service. Which of the following can be categorized as system specifications? Select two.

  • At the time a query is made to check the current balance of a checking account, the owner of the checking account shall be logged in.
  • The user shall be able to check the current balance of the checking accounts that he/she own.
  • Activate a login session when a user logs in, and maintain the session for 60 minutes unless the user who logged in has been inactive for more than 120 seconds.
  • A user shall be able to use the online banking system securely.

Quiz 4: Non-functional Requirements

Q1. A constraint to only use Microsoft Project during the system development is a non-functional requirement.

  • True.
  • False.

Q2. Which of the following are non-functional requirements:

  • Some product requirements, like using a specific encryption protocol, are non-functional requirements.
  • Organization requirements imposed by the company, like a specific coding style, are non-functional requirements.
  • External requirements imposed by external organization, like using a specific development style, are non-functional requirements.
  • All of the above.

Quiz 5: WRSPM Quiz

Q1. WRSPM stands for:

  • Wide, Requirement, Software, Planning and Model.
  • World, Requirement, Specification, Program and Machine.
  • None of the above.

Q2. Looking at the difference between user requirements and system
specifications in the ATM example, we know that swiping the card and
prompting for a PIN are requirements, while reading the card details and a 4-digit PIN are specifications.

  • True.
  • False.

Q3. The purpose of the WRSPM model is to ensure that:

  • Specifications meet the requirements.
  • Requirements meet specifications.
  • None of the above.

Quiz 6: Software Architecture: Definition

Q1. A subsystem in an architecture must:

  • be created separately and can operate individually.
  • have business value.
  • be integrated with one another or with existing subsystems.
  • All of the above.

Q2. Partitioning of a large system into smaller subsystems helps the buy-or-build decision because we can examine each subsystem and reason about possible buy-or-build options for each.

  • True.
  • False.

Q3. A good software architecture is important because:

  • It helps organize the workforce and resources.
  • It allows for parallelization in development.
  • It helps build-or-buy decisions.
  • It helps with funding decisions.

Quiz 7: Software Architecture Models

Q1. A UNIX program where the output of one program is the input of another, is an example of which of the software architecture models below:

  • Blackboard Model.
  • Pipe-and-Filter Model.
  • Client-Server Model.
  • Event-based Model.
  • Layered Model.

Q2. An online banking system is best modeled by:

  • Pipe-and-Filter Model.
  • Blackboard Model.
  • Client-Server Model.
  • Event-based Model.

Q3. A vehicle identification and tracking system, where each moving vehicle is tracked and monitored through a shared program, is best modeled by:

  • Pipe-and-Filter Model.
  • Blackboard Model.
  • Layer Model
  • Client-Server Model
  • Event-based Model

Quiz 8: Software Architecture: Process

Q1. The difference between subsystems and modules are:

  • Subsystems can independently comprise the business logic by itself while modules can’t.
  • Subsystems can communicate with other subsystems while modules cannot communicate with other modules.
  • All of the above.

Q2. Software quality attributes that we care about during software architecture are:

  • Performance.
  • Reliability.
  • Testability.
  • Security.
  • Usability.

Q3. Software architecture concerns itself with both estimation and quality but not partitioning.

  • True.
  • False.

Quiz 9: Requirements and Architecture

Q1. Which of the following is considered the most difficult in the software development process?

  • Testing the solution with users
  • Determining the accurate market price for the finished product
  • Accurately identifying user needs
  • Developing a Java program to meet the designed solution

Q2. What is a Requirements Specification?

  • A process, how the requirements are written (specified)
  • A product, a written specification of the requirements
  • Both
  • Neither

Q3. Based on the NASA statistics on budget and schedule overrun vs. time spent on requirements process, what is the recommended amount of time to spend on the requirements stage?

  • 0% of the total time spent on the project
  • 5-10% of the total time spent on the project
  • 20% of the total time spent on the project
  • The same amount as you expect to spend on testing.

Q4. Which of the following matches the terms to the correct definition?

  • Requirements – solution properties designed to solve problem; Specification – user needs in user language
  • Requirements – user needs in user language; Specification – solution properties designed to solve problem

Q5. Which of these is a user requirement?

  • Allow an authorized user to post a message of no more than 136 characters to the Facebook POST API
  • Retry posting the message up to 3 times every 5 minutes if the post is rejected by the server
  • Use the MariaDB database for internal data persistance
  • Allow the user to post a message to Facebook

Q6. Which of the following is NOT an example of a non-functional requirement.

  • Communication between the client and server will be expressed in EBCDIC endoding.
  • The developing team shall use the spiral model of software development lifecycle.
  • The user shall be able to select the course number.
  • The messages between the client and server shall be in YAML 1.2 format.

Q7. What element(s) of the WRSPM model belong in the environment (including the overlap between environment and system)?

  • W
  • W,R
  • W,R,S
  • R,S
  • R,S,P
  • S
  • S,P
  • S,P,M
  • P,M
  • M

Q8. Which of these is proper definition of software architecture?

  • integrating small systems with no individual business value into larger ones
  • partitioning large systems into smaller ones that can be created seperately, have individual business value, and can be easily integrated
  • planning and pricing the resources involved with developing a large-scale software system, including presenting such plans and budgets to senior level executives for funding
  • all of the above

Q9. Which of the following models is best suited for a system with significant shared data that needs to be shared across a variety of components or sub-systems, somewhat like global variables, but with better data integrity?

  • pipe-and-filter
  • event-based
  • client-server
  • layered
  • blackboard

Q10. Which of the following models is best suited for a system that includes several subsets of functionality that are used in more than one area of the system?

  • layered
  • client-server
  • blackboard
  • pipe-and-filter
  • event-based

Q11. Which of the following models is best suited for a system that benefits from the separation of complexity and processing between work which can be done locally and that which should be completed on a shared, remote service?

  • layered
  • blackboard
  • pipe-and-filter
  • client-server
  • event-based

Q12. Which of the following would be considered a sub-system, rather than a module?

  • A class which represents the paying customer
  • A set of classes which convert various values based on environment or parameter information
  • A set of classes which generates reports
  • A class which provides a service (e.g. AccountCreationService)

Week 2

Quiz 1: Software Design: Introduction

Q1. Software design is the process of transforming the stated problem into a ready-to-use implementation.

  • False
  • True

Q2. Abstract solutions do not require extensive domain knowledge and effectively reduce the costs during the software design phase.

  • False
  • True

Q3. It is often advised that abstract solutions do not provide optimization details regarding the implementation.

  • True
  • False

Q4. When it comes to software design, it is always best to follow a solution that is widely popular in the industry

  • False
  • True

Q5. While a solution coming from software design does not include implementation details, there are still common cases where pseudocode may be provided to correctly capture the sense of a complex algorithm.

  • True
  • False

Quiz 2: Software Design: Modularity

Q1. Check all that apply: The four aspects of modularity are…

  • Sort Functions
  • Data Encapsulation
  • Components
  • Data Hiding
  • Cohesion
  • Information Hiding
  • Coupling

Q2. Which of the four aspects of modularity is defined as: How well modules work together.

  • Cohesion
  • Coupling
  • Information Hiding
  • Data Encapsulation

Q3. Which of the four aspects of modularity can be described as: Abstracting away implementation details.

  • Data Encapsulation
  • Coupling
  • Cohesion
  • Information Hiding

Q4. Which of the four aspects of modularity can be described as: How well a module meets a single well-defined goal.

  • Information Hiding
  • Data Encapsulation
  • Cohesion
  • Coupling

Q5. Which of the four aspects of modularity can be described as: Containment of constructs and concepts within a module.

  • Coupling
  • Information Hiding
  • Cohesion
  • Data Encapsulation

Q6. Three goals of __ can be described as (1) Decomposability, (2) Composability, and (3) Ease of Understanding.

  • Modularity
  • Cohesion
  • Coupling

Q7. You have a sort function that provides no details on which sorting algorithm is used. This is an example of which aspect of modularity?

  • Data Encapsulation
  • Coupling
  • Information Hiding
  • Cohesion

Q8. A benefit to using __ is that you know if your data is corrupted, then it must have been corrupted by the module.

  • Information Hiding
  • Cohesion
  • Coupling
  • Data Encapsulation

Quiz 3: Software Design: Coupling

Q1. Choose the most accurate answer: Low coupling aids in…

  • lower corruption rate of data.
  • decomposability.
  • ensuring that changes don’t cross boundaries of modules.
  • abstracting away complex information.

Q2. Which of the following statements about coupling are true?

  • Coupling measures the strength of connections between components.
  • Loose coupling makes it unlikely that changes will be propogated across components.
  • Shared variables and control information leads to tight coupling.
  • Loose coupling is partly achieved through message passing.
  • All of the above

Q3. The goal in low coupling is to ensure that changes don’t cross the boundaries of modules.

  • False
  • True

Q4. The three types of tight coupling are:

  • Content; Common; External
  • There is no such thing as tight coupling
  • Data; Message; None
  • Control; Data Structure; Message

Q5. Module A relies directly on local data of module B. This is an example of what type of coupling?

  • Tight external coupling
  • Tight common coupling
  • Tight content coupling

Q6. Modules A and B both rely on global data or a global variable. This is an example of what type of coupling?

  • Tight content coupling
  • Tight common coupling
  • Tight external coupling

Q7. Modules rely on externally imposed format (or protocol or interface). This is an example of what type of coupling?

  • Tight content coupling
  • Tight external coupling
  • Tight common coupling

Q8. The two types of medium coupling are:

  • Message; None
  • Control; Data Structure
  • Content; Common
  • Data; Message

Q9. Module A controls the logical flow of module B. This is an example of what type of coupling?

  • Medium data structure coupling
  • Medium control coupling

Q10. Module A and B both rely on the same composite data structure. This is an example of what type of coupling?

  • Medium control coupling
  • Medium data structure coupling

Q11. The three types of loose coupling are:

  • Control; Data Structure; Loose
  • Content; Common; External
  • Data; Message; Data Structure
  • Data; Message; None

Q12. Modules only share parameters. This is an example of what type of coupling?

  • Loose data coupling
  • Loose message coupling
  • Loose no coupling

Q13. The loosest type of coupling; components only communicate through parameters or message passing. This is an example of what type of coupling?

  • Loose data coupling
  • Loose message coupling
  • Loose no coupling

Quiz 4: Software Design: Cohesion

Q1. Choose the most accurate answer: Cohesion describes…

  • decomposability.
  • loose coupling.
  • how well everything within a module fits together.
  • how changes do not cross boundaries of modules.

Q2. Which of the following statements about cohesion is true?

  • Cohesion measures how well everything within a module fits together.
  • Describes the implementation of a single logical entity or function.
  • Represents a desirable design attitude.
  • High cohesion is the aim in software development.
  • All of the above

Q3. The goal in real-life software development is to aim for object and functional cohesion and anything less than this should be justified.

  • True
  • False

Q4. The four types of weak cohesion are:

  • Coincidental, temporal, sequential, logical association
  • There is no such thing as loose cohesion
  • Coincidental, temporal, procedural, logical association
  • Communicational, sequential, object, functional

Q5. Parts of modules are together in the same file. This is an example of what type of cohesion?

  • Procedural cohesion
  • Coincidental cohesion
  • Temporal cohesion
  • Logical association cohesion

Q6. Different pieces of code are activated at the same time. This is an example of what type of cohesion?

  • Temporal cohesion
  • Procedural cohesion
  • Logical association cohesion
  • Coincidental cohesion

Q7. One piece of code runs after the other. This is an example of what type of cohesion?

  • Logical association cohesion
  • Coincidental cohesion
  • Temporal cohesion
  • Procedural cohesion

Q8. Components do similar but separate things. This is an example of what type of cohesion?

  • Temporal cohesion
  • Logical association cohesion
  • Procedural cohesion
  • Coincidental cohesion

Q9. The two types of medium cohesion are:

  • Sequential, logical association
  • There is no such thing as medium cohesion
  • Coincidental, temporal
  • Communicational, sequential

Q10. All elements of a component operate on the same input or produce the same output. This is an example of what type of cohesion?

  • Communicational Cohesion
  • Sequential Cohesion

Q11. One component’s output provides the input to another component. This is an example of what type of cohesion?

  • Sequential Cohesion
  • Communicational Cohesion

Q12. The two types of strong cohesion are:

  • Object, functional
  • Communicational, sequential
  • Coincidental, temporal
  • Object, strong

Q13. Each operation in a module is provided to allow object attributes to be modified or inspected. This is an example of what type of cohesion?

  • Object Cohesion
  • Functional Cohesion

Q14. Every part of a component is necessary for a single well-defined behavior. This is an example of what type of cohesion?

  • Object Cohesion
  • Functional Cohesion

Q15. True or False: inheritance strengthens cohesion.

  • False
  • True

Quiz 5: Implementation

Q1. Why should you program when you are alert?

  • Sleep deprivation leads to mistakes.
  • Output falls drastically after working 50+ hours per week.
  • All of the above

Q2. Which of the following are examples of ‘Write code for people not computers’? Select three.

  • Let your code (variable names, function names, etc.) explain HOW it does what it does.
  • In your comments, explain WHY the code does what it does.
  • Do not code while sleep deprived.
  • Choose informative variable names.

Q3. Fill in the blank. Write , , and __ before writing functional code.

  • Comments; Tests; Exception Handling.
  • System Specifications; User Guide; Exception Handling.
  • Comments; Benchmarks; Tips for Use.

Q4. If you write the same code more than once…

  • Put that code into a method.
  • It’s okay.
  • You did something wrong.

Q5. True or False: Every method can be written without side effects.

  • False.
  • True.

Quiz 6: Deployment

Q1. Deployment occurs in the end stage of active development.

  • False
  • True

Q2. Product deployment should encapsulate three main focus areas. What are they?

  • Problem areas
  • Plan for recovery in case of failure
  • Description of the physical environment
  • Planned steps

Q3. Concerns to address in your deployment plan include:

  • Physical environment requirements
  • Hardware requirements
  • Documentation
  • 3rd party software requirements
  • Training
  • Software being deployed
  • Database-related activities
  • All of the above

Quiz 7: Deployment: Rollback

Q1. A rollback is the reversal of actions completed during deployment with the intent to never revert a system back to its previous working state.

  • False
  • True

Q2. What are some reasons why you would need a rollback plan? Select two.

  • Installation doesn’t go as expected.
  • It is the end goal in product deployment.
  • Fixing the problem ends up taking longer than the window allows.
  • Database management in complex systems.

Q3. Deployment without a rollback plan should occasionally occur. Especially when the installation involves deleting files.

  • False
  • True

Quiz 8: Deployment: Cutover Strategies

Q1. The three cutover strategies are…

  • Hot failover
  • Cold failover
  • Warm standby
  • Hot standby
  • Warm failover
  • Cold backup

Q2. If you need to have a cutover strategy where the replacement machine is ready for a full setup and install, then you would choose which of the following cutover strategies?

  • Warm failover
  • Cold backup
  • Hot failover
  • Warm standby

Q3. If you need to have a cutover strategy where the replacement services are ready for the redirection of data with no installation, then you would choose which of the following cutover strategies?

  • Warm standby
  • Hot failover
  • Cold backup
  • Hot backup

Q4. If you need to have a cutover strategy where the replacement machine is running and ready for installation, then you would choose which of the following cutover strategies?

  • Warm standby
  • Cold failover
  • Hot failover
  • Cold backup

Q5. There is no difference between load balancing and hot failover.

  • true
  • false

Quiz 9: Software Testing: Introduction

Q1. Test data represents possible inputs that are provided to the _ for the purposes of testing.

  • system
  • oracle
  • both the system and the oracle

Q2. The oracle uses information provided from test cases to decide the correctness of the software under test

  • True
  • False

Q3. Test cases are composed of _

  • test data
  • system (actual) outputs
  • expected outputs

Q4. Manual oracles are sufficient and effective for the majority of real-world applications

  • True
  • False

Q5. Choose the correct True-False pair: An error is the manifestation of a failure. A failure is the manifestation of an error.

  • True, True
  • False, True
  • True, False
  • False, False

Q6. It is possible for errors to remain undiscovered as long as the erroneous __ is never used

  • component
  • test data
  • test case
  • output

Q7. Software testing can be used to prove the absense of failures in a module, but not the absense of faults

  • True
  • False

Quiz 10: Design, Implementation, and Testing

Q1. Where does software design fit in the traditional waterfall software development lifecycle?

  • Before requirements
  • Between implementation and deployment
  • Between architecture and implementation
  • Between specification and architecture

Q2. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of software design

  • Polymorphism
  • Modularity
  • Coupling
  • Cohesion

Q3. The ability to use a built-in function of a programming language to generate a random number is an example of which of the following?

  • Coupling
  • Cohesion
  • Modularity
  • Information hiding

Q4. Analyzing the extent to which other modules must change when a module is modified is an example of which of the following?

  • Coupling
  • Information hiding
  • Modularity
  • Cohesion

Q5. When all of the responsibilities of a module are easily classified as being strongly related, this is an example of high what?

  • Coupling
  • Information hiding
  • Cohesion
  • Modularity

Q6. Which of the following is most preferred?

  • Allowing one module to affect the program flow of another via the use of a state message (message coupling)
  • Having more than one module rely on the same version of the RSS standard (external coupling)
  • Having two modules rely on the same global information structure (common coupling)
  • Allowing one module to affect the program flow of another via the use of a flag (control coupling)

Q7. Which of the following is LEAST desirable?

  • including functionality which modifies an object’s own attributes
  • including functionality which occurs around the same time
  • including functionality which relys on the same input
  • including functionality which entirely encapsulates all the necessary function for a specific task

Q8. Which of the following are necessary before proper testing?

  • inputs, expected output, an oracle, and the actual output
  • inputs and expected output
  • inputs which cause issues
  • inputs, expected output, and an oracle

Q9. Which of the following is a mistake made by the developer?

  • Failure
  • Effective error
  • Fault
  • Latent error

Q10. Which of the following is an example of validation?

  • software is well-received by the user
  • use of the software provides the correct results as documented
  • ensuring the system locks out an account after three failed log-in attempts
  • software recognizes incorrect inputs

Q11. In your current project, you have access to some intern development resources, which are not currently operating at full capacity. You also know that the testing timeline will be truncated, due to delays in critical-path module development. Which strategy should you employ?

  • Utilize the intern resources to design and develop drivers and stubs, while work continues on critical-path module development
  • Allow the testing team to work without (or with quick-to-develop) drivers and stubs, and utilize the intern resources to aid testing once all critical-path development is complete
  • Make no changes to the current project testing or development allocations, utilizing intern resources to create documentation.
  • Allow the testing team to work without (or with quick-to-develop) drivers and stubs, while using intern resources to aid critical-path development

Q12. When is testing complete?

  • When you run out of time
  • When you have completed all the tests in the test plan
  • When you have tested every input
  • When you find the last bug

Q13. Which of the following is an example of black-box testing?

  • Developing additional tests when every if statement does not evaluate both true and false once given the current test suite
  • Developing test cases based on typical user behavior
  • Developing additional test cases to force a division by zero
  • Developing test cases to exercise error-prone constructs

Week 3

Quiz 1: Waterfall methods

Q1. In waterfall method, you get your product in one big bang deployment

  • True
  • False

Q2. Sashimi model may help decrease the time duration of the project by

  • Overlapping the phases
  • Adding more skilled resources of the project

Q3. Which of the following are true for the V-model? Select two.

  • Requirement changes are welcomed in all phases of this project.
  • It is a predictive model.
  • Testing-related activities are started earlier in the process.

Quiz 2: Waterfall and Incremental Software Development Models

Q1. In predictive models, change during the development is expected.

  • True
  • False

Q2. In which model might you end up building something different than what you originally planned?

  • Adaptive models
  • V-Model
  • Waterfall models

Q3. What are the BENEFITS of the Sashimi Model? Select two.

  • It can support creating a learning prototype early
  • It supports early validation
  • It can help shorten development time

Q4. Which of the following is true for the V-model? Select two.

  • It is a predictive model
  • The V-model is useful in cases where there is ambiguity in requirements and early validation would be useful.
  • This models emphasizes risk analysis and resolution
  • In this model, you build software in increments

Q5. Which of the following is true for Incremental Models? Select three.

  • You always have to use the same model for each of the increments
  • Incremental models may result in rework
  • Incremental models are always predictive models
  • If deploying an increment to actual users can benefit the organization, using an incremental model is a potential candidate to consider.
  • You can overlap building of one increment with another

Q6. Which of the following is true for the Waterfall model, V-model and Sashimi model? Select two.

  • In these models, we assume that we know requirements really well
  • In these models, the cost of change depends on how late we find out about the change. If a problem requiring a change is found during the implementation phase, it will be more expensive to fix than one found during the design phase.
  • In these models, the team is expected to know the solution really well.

Q7. Which model is the best model to use in all situations?

  • Adaptive since it has most advantages
  • Waterfall
  • None

Quiz 3: Unified and Spiral Processes

Q1. In the Unified Process, all requirements work is done upfront and no requirements work is done in the construction phase.

  • True
  • False

Q2. What are some of the activities that happen in the elaboration phase of the Unified Process? Select two.

  • Decide if you are going to build the system or buy an off-the-shelf product
  • Deploy an increment of the software
  • Validate system architecture by building executable architecture baseline
  • Address known risks

Q3. Which of the following activities happen in Step 2 of the Spiral Model? Select two.

  • Identify risks
  • Decide objectives and constraints
  • Resolve risks
  • Make a decision whether to continue with the next cycle

Q4. Select the four basic steps followed in each cycle of the Spiral Model.

  • Define Objective
  • Deployment
  • Development and Tests
  • Identify and Resolve Risks
  • Requirements
  • Design
  • Plan the Next Iteration

Q5. Which of the following are true for the Unified Processes and its variants? Select two.

  • UML Unified Process is the Ultimate Unified Process with a superset of all practices and processes.
  • Rational Unified Process is a lighter version of the Unified Process.
  • Enterprise Unified Process adds additional practices on top of the Unified Process and Rational Unified Process.
  • Agile Unified Process and Open Unified Process are lighter versions of the “Unified Process”.

Quiz 4: Traditional Software Development Models

Q1. Which of the following is true for adaptive models? (Select any two)

  • You may end-up building something different than what you originally thought
  • You discourage change during the development process
  • You are not sure about what exactly you want to build
  • Adaptive model is the best model in all situations

Q2. A team divided the application they were building into 4 parts and planning to build one part at a time. To build each part, they are planning to go through the steps of requirements, design, implementation, test, and deployment. Also, they are planning to complete each part fully with high fidelity. By fidelity we mean the completeness of the features implemented in each part. Based on this information, what type of model do you suggest they use for their software development process?

  • Incremental
  • Iterative and Incremental
  • Iterative

Q3. A team is working on a problem where the requirements are well known but they are short on time. They prefer to start the design phase when some of the requirements have been defined. Similarly, they want to start coding when the design for part of the system is ready. What model will best fit their needs?

  • Sashimi
  • V-model
  • Waterfall
  • Spiral

Q4. In the incremental model variation where you do requirements and design for all of the application once and then just increment on implementation, testing, and deployment, are you making the process more suitable for a predictive or adaptive situation?

  • Predictive
  • Adaptive

Q5. Which of following is NOT true about incremental and iterative models?

  • Iterative approaches release every feature with low fidelity and then improve fidelity over time. By fidelity we mean the completeness of the feature.
  • Incremental approaches release features as they are finished with high fidelity.
  • An incremental model is one where you can build each part of the system individually but you release all at once.
  • In a model which is both iterative and incremental, we release features when they are usable. Over time the development team improves existing features and adds new ones

Q6. Which of the following is NOT true for the Waterfall model, V-model and Sashimi model?

  • In these models, the team is expected to know the solution really well.
  • In these models, the cost of change depends on how late we find out about the change. If problem requiring a change is found during the implementation phase, it will be more expensive to fix than one found during the design phase.
  • In these models, we assume that we know requirements really well.
  • These models will be a good model to be used by a startup implement a new idea that is new to market

Q7. In the Unified Process, what does the milestone of “Lifecycle Architecture” mean?

  • Agreement among stakeholders about the objectives of the project and to proceed with the project.
  • Agreement among the stakeholders about the technical approach.
  • Agreement among the stakeholders about the deployment of the system to actual users.

Q8. Which of the following is true for the Unified Process? (select any 3)

  • It is a framework and not a specific model.
  • It is a predictive framework.
  • It is a very simple framework to follow.
  • It is an architecture-centric framework.
  • The construction phase supports both iterative and incremental approaches.

Q9. Select situations listed below where you would NOT use the Unified Process framework.

  • Medium-sized project with some risks involved.
  • Very small, simple project where the problem and solution are well known.
  • Situation where the organization wants to deliver part of the application early to capture the market ahead of competition.
  • All requirements are not known early in the project.

Q10. Which of the following is NOT true for Spiral Model?

  • It minimizes waste by allowing teams to tailor the effort put into different processes based on the risk involved in each cycle.
  • You always have to perform all the steps mentioned in the Spiral Model diagram
  • It is suitable for very large high risk projects
  • Spiral Model is not a model but a process model generator.

Q11. Which of the following is NOT the benefits of the Unified Process?

  • Easy to understand and implement.
  • Supports quality and reuse by putting an emphasis on architecture.
  • Flexible for handling change.
  • Supports / encourages risk identification and mitigation.
  • Supports to incorporate other models in the process for example you can use Agile in the construction phase.

Week 4

Quiz 1: Agile Mindset

Q1. What are some of the challenges with Waterfall methods that prompted the software industry to come up with alternatives like Agile? Select three.

  • Integration issues between different components of the software go undetected for a long time. During the testing phase, when all the components are integrated, these issues are discovered but it is very late in the process.
  • Predicting customer needs is difficult.
  • Project teams were geographically distributed.
  • Wrong implementation goes undetected for a long time.
  • Projects cost too much.

Q2. What are the four Agile values according to the Agile Manifesto?

  • Customer Collaboration over Contract Negotiation
  • People and Interaction over Processes and Tools.
  • Planning Properly over Just Executing
  • Responding to Change over Following a Plan
  • Working Software over Comprehensive Documentation

Q3. Which of the following statements align with the value “Working software over comprehensive documentation” of the Agile manifesto?

  • Don’t do documentation on an Agile project.
  • Create documentation when it provides value.
  • Must write documentation to fulfill company policy.

Q4. Which of the following is true about the Agile Manifesto? Select two.

  • The Agile Manifesto consists of 4 values and 12 principles.
  • The Agile Manifesto was primarily based on theoretical knowledge.
  • The Agile Manifesto specifies exact practices and processes that Agile teams are expected to follow
  • The Agile Manifesto is a work in progress and we are continuing to learn.

Q5. Why is it difficult to predict user needs and requirements? Select three.

  • Difficult to understand user needs.
  • Not enough time is spent on requirements. If we spend more time early, we can define requirements very accurately.
  • Sometimes the market shifts from the time when the requirements were originally defined.
  • Translation issues. Requirements are misinterpreted.

Quiz 2: Agile Frameworks and models

Q1. Which of the following are official rituals/meetings/practices in Scrum?

  • Sprint Retrospective Meeting
  • Daily Scrum Meeting
  • Sprint Review Meeting
  • Mid-Sprint Status Review Meeting
  • Sprint Planning Meeting

Q2. Which of these are core properties of Kanban?

  • Daily stand-up
  • Limit work in progress
  • Retrospectives
  • Manage Flow
  • Visualize the Work

Q3. Which of the following are TRUE about Lean Startup? Select two.

  • The concept of “Validated Learning” in Lean Startup means validating your learning and new ideas with your manager before you implement
  • Lean Startup concept is primarily applicable to startup companies. It is not applicable for bigger organizations.
  • In Lean Startup, you try to validate/invalidate your assumptions (crucial for the success of your product) as fast as you can.
  • Lean Startup concepts recommend to go through Build-Measure-Learn cycles as fast as you can.

Q4. Which of the following is true about Scrum? Select two.

  • In Sprint Retrospective, we talk about what we build, give a demo and get customer/client feedback
  • In Sprint Review, we talk about process and talk about what was working, what didn’t work and how we can improve.
  • Burndown and Burnup chart help teams track the progress of the current sprint.
  • It is encouraged to make iteration scope changes during the sprint
  • In daily stand-up, everybody talks about what they worked, what they are planning to work on and share any impediments they have.

Q5. Which of the following is true about product and sprint backlogs? Select two.

  • A sprint backlog is created during the sprint planning meeting.
  • The product backlog is a prioritized backlog with highest priority items on the top.
  • Sprint and product backlogs are same thing.
  • A sprint backlog has all of the items contained in the product backlog.

Quiz 3: Agile & Lean Software Development

Q1. What are some of the challenges with the Waterfall methods that prompted the software industry to come up with alternatives like Agile? (select 2)

  • Projects were very complex and big.
  • Projects cost too much.
  • It is difficult to predict user/customer needs.
  • Incorrect interpretations of requirements by developers go undetected for a long time. During user acceptance tests, these issues are discovered but it is very late.

Q2. Which of the following statements aligns with the value “Working software over comprehensive documentation” of Agile manifesto? (select any 2)

  • Value delivering software over writing documentation.
  • If documentation is absolutely essential then create it.
  • A manager tells the team: “Writing certain documentation is company policy so we must create them irrespective of its use.
  • An Agile coach says to the team “Documentation is of no use.”

Q3. Which one of the following statements/situations/conversations align with an Agile mindset?

  • A manager e-mails her team: “Meeting face to face just for a 15 minute discussion is inefficient, let us all just dial-in from our desk.”
  • A software vendor says to a client: “We must define exactly what the user needs and put that in agreement.”
  • A manager providing a status update to a customer says: “We are done with requirements and design so we are 50% done.”
  • Manager: “The customer is suggesting another change in feature X which is complete as per specification. They agree that it was built as we agreed upon but it lacks some functionality and will result in user frustration. Should we implement the change or not?”
  • Developer: “Yes, if it does not fulfill user needs, we should make the change.”

Q4. Which of the following is TRUE about lean startup? (select all that apply)

  • Lean Startup concept is primarily applicable to startup companies. It is not applicable for bigger organizations.
  • The concept of “Validated Learning” in Lean Startup means validating your learning and new ideas with your manager before you implement.
  • Lean Startup concepts recommends to go through Build-Measure-Learn cycles as fast as you can.
  • In Lean Startup, you try to validate/invalidate your assumptions (crucial for the success of your product) as fast as you can.

Q5. Which of following is valid on a Kanban Board? (select any 2)

  • WIP limit for Step X is 3. Step X is divided into “Doing” and “Done.” Number of items in “Doing” column is 2, and number of items in “Done” column is 1
  • WIP limit for Step X is 3. Step X is divided into “Doing” and “Done.” Number of items in “Doing” column is 2, and number of items in “Done” column is 1. One of the items in the previous step is done and developer wants to move that item to Step X
  • WIP limit for Step X is 3. Step X is divided into “Doing” and “Done.” Number of items in “Doing” column is 3, and number of items in “Done” column is 2
  • WIP limit for Step X is 3. Step X is divided into “Doing” and “Done.” Number of items in “Doing” column is 4, and number of items in “Done” column is 0
  • WIP limit for Step X is 5. Step X is divided into “Doing” and “Done.” Number of items in “Doing” column is 3, and number of items in “Done” column is 1. One of the item in previous step is done and developer wants to move that item to Step X

Q6. Which of the following Framework/process model supports Agile Mindset? (select all that apply)

  • Kanban
  • Lean Startup
  • XP
  • Scrum
  • DSDM
  • Waterfall
  • Sashimi
  • V-Model
  • Crystal

Q7. A software development team just started using Kanban. They had the following columns with WIP limit of 3 for each column on their Kanban board from left to right: Backlog(3), Analysis(3), Development(3), Testing(3), Deployment

There are currently 3 items in Testing (3 items being tested)

Similarly, there are 3 items in Development column (2 items are in development and 1 item is done being developed)

One of the developers does not have anything to work on so the manager wants to add one more item to the development column so the developer looking for work can work on it.

Which one of the following would be a valid action in this situation? (Select any 3)

  • Add another tester in the Testing team so this bottleneck can be resolved quickly.
  • Team should get together and discuss if we should increase the WIP limit of the development column as we have more developers and it will be smoother flow if WIP limit of the Development column is increased.
  • Manager should ask the developer waiting for work to help the testers so that they can finish one of the items from their column and move it to Deployment column.
  • The manager should ask the testers to move one of the items of the Test column temporarily to the Deployment column so that we can move items from the Development column. Later, we can move items back from the Deployment column to the Testing column.
  • It does not make sense for the developer to wait before one of the items moved to another column. The manager should add one more item to the development column and no other change needed.

Q8. In Scrum, when is the sprint backlog created?

  • At the beginning of the project
  • During the sprint planning meeting
  • During the backlog refinement meeting
  • Whenever needed

Q9. In Scrum, how is Product Backlog Arranged?

  • Into categories, P1, P2, P3, etc.
  • Most important items at the top, least important items at the bottom.
  • Large items at the top, small items at the bottom
  • Items are randomly arranged

Q10. Which of the following is TRUE about Scrum? (Select all that apply)

  • Scrum is the best way to implement the Agile mindset. Other Agile methods are not as effective.
  • Scrum has fixed time-boxed development cycles called sprints.
  • Scrum is an adaptive framework/model
  • Daily Standup in Scrum is mainly for Scrum Master to get the status of the project.

Conclusion

Hopefully, this article will be useful for you to find all the Week, final assessment, and Peer Graded Assessment Answers of Software Development Processes and Methodologies Quiz of Coursera and grab some premium knowledge with less effort. If this article really helped you in any way then make sure to share it with your friends on social media and let them also know about this amazing training. You can also check out our other course Answers. So, be with us guys we will share a lot more free courses and their exam/quiz solutions also, and follow our Techno-RJ Blog for more updates.

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